I was reading in 2 Nephi 31:12, where Nephi is prophesying about Christ's baptism. He goes on to explain how he heard the voice of Christ tell him, "He that is baptized in my name, to him will the Father give the Holy Ghost, like unto me." (Emphasis added). I was interested in studying why Christ would need the Gift of the Holy Ghost during his ministry, but as I searched, I found more questions than answers.
I tried to find any account of Christ actually receiving the Gift of the Holy Ghost by traditional means (i.e. the laying on of hands), but could find no such reference. I remembered learning on my mission that the Gift of the Holy Ghost was not bestowed until Christ was resurrected, and this is explained in the New Testament and the bible dictionary (John 7:39 - ... for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified). I also looked up in Jesus the Christ, but found no reference (although it does talk about the Gift of the Holy Ghost being bestowed upon the Apostles after Christ had ascended).
So here's the question. I understand that the Gift of the Holy Ghost was not given to others during Christ's mortal ministry, but are we to take the language of 2 Nephi 31:12 to mean that Christ had received the Gift of the Holy Ghost? If so, did he receive it during his lifetime and why, if he was God, would he need the Gift of the Holy Ghost? If not, why did Nephi use this language?
Any help would be massively appreciated.
Take this with several grains of salt, because I am no religious expert, and I don't really have scriptural evidence to back this up.
ReplyDeleteBut my own feeling would be that he probably did receive the Holy Ghost. The question you asked (why would he need the Holy Ghost, if he was perfect?) could also be applied to his baptism, but we know that he was still baptized, despite his lack of sin. If he did receive it, I would propose that it was immediately following his baptism, when the Holy Ghost descended in the form of a dove.
I think another question that would help with an answer is Is receiving the gift of the Holy Ghost an ordinance necessary for exaltation? In my mom's RS class last week we talked about Christ's life, and discussed that baptism's purpose is to cleanse us from sin, but it's also a necessary ordinance if we want to attain exaltation. So Christ, even though he was sinless, was still required to receive the vital ordinances. Even God has to follow his own laws. So I think that if we can determine that the receiving of the gift of the Holy Ghost is one of those necessary ordinances, it is safe to say that He did receive it.
I'm sure someone with more Gospel intelligence than me can give you a better answer, but those are my initial thoughts!
WOW! some very deep thinking here. Liz, I think that was an amazing answer.
ReplyDeleteI dont know a lot at all, but what i've learned and what i think I know, is yes, he did - we are to follow in his footsteps. But Liz did an amazing job answering this. Love the picture and in-depth thoughts.
Thanks, everyone for the comments! I appreciate your insight!
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