"There will be no more doctrine."

2 Nephi 32:5 states:

"... if ye will enter in by the way, and receive the Holy Ghost, it will show unto you all things what ye should do."

Following is verse 6 -

"... this is the doctrine of Christ, and there will be no more doctrine given until after he shall manifest himself unto you in the flesh."

Footnotes show that Nephi is here talking about the first coming of Christ to the earth.  So the question is, if there is to be no more doctrine until Christ comes, what additional doctrine relating to 32:5 will come?  I understand that when Christ came he did away with the Mosaic law, but this seems to be talking about something different, that somehow when he comes something in relation to the Holy Ghost will change.

I didn't even know where to start with this question.  Any ideas?  Am I reading too much into it? Thanks.

What am I to understand about God's role in the scriptures?

I was reading in 2 Nephi 31 and Nephi talks about how Christ speaks to him and expounds the doctrine of baptism.  Then, in verse 15, he says that he hears the voice of the Father, testifying that what Christ says is true.

So it got me thinking about God the Father and his appearances in scripture.  From what I could find, he mostly appears to testify of Christ and the truthfulness of Christ's teaching (Matt 17:15; John 1:29-34; JSH 1; 3 Ne. 11:7).  The only real time that I could find when the Father is said to expound doctrine is when Christ speaks of the Father's teachings (of course Genesis/Moses are filled with God the Father doing things and teaching and whatnot).

I understand that Christ and God the Father are so inextricably linked that to worship one is to worship the other and to know one is to know the other, but why is it that God doesn't speak more about his doctrines in the scriptures, instead deferring to Christ?  If God is to be that one Eternal Being that we ultimately worship, why did he set up a plan where we worship him through another person? (Is it like the Aaron-Moses spokesperson deal? Maybe because of the Fall God works more through Christ?) I have always found this interesting and would love to hear any thoughts/scriptures/teachings you have developed or found on the subject.

Did Christ recieve the Gift of the Holy Ghost?

I was reading in 2 Nephi 31:12, where Nephi is prophesying about Christ's baptism.  He goes on to explain how he heard the voice of Christ tell him, "He that is baptized in my name, to him will the Father give the Holy Ghost, like unto me." (Emphasis added).  I was interested in studying why Christ would need the Gift of the Holy Ghost during his ministry, but as I searched, I found more questions than answers.

I tried to find any account of Christ actually receiving the Gift of the Holy Ghost by traditional means (i.e. the laying on of hands), but could find no such reference.  I remembered learning on my mission that the Gift of the Holy Ghost was not bestowed until Christ was resurrected, and this is explained in the New Testament and the bible dictionary (John 7:39 - ... for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified).  I also looked up in Jesus the Christ, but found no reference (although it does talk about the Gift of the Holy Ghost being bestowed upon the Apostles after Christ had ascended).

So here's the question.  I understand that the Gift of the Holy Ghost was not given to others during Christ's mortal ministry, but are we to take the language of 2 Nephi 31:12 to mean that Christ had received the Gift of the Holy Ghost? If so, did he receive it during his lifetime and why, if he was God, would he need the Gift of the Holy Ghost? If not, why did Nephi use this language?

Any help would be massively appreciated.